98 thoughts on “Platypus

    • While of the same time period, I think England was still using Henry’s Bible, and Will would have had a Latin Catholic tome hidden away somewhere. Still, could be possible he’d have been exposed to it, and it would have been similar to what he knew.


        • There you have then. I knew it was the official Bible of the Reformation, but I would have expected Henry’s Great Bible would have been kept for Anglican use. I need to do some digging, apparently, and find out why they traded up.


            • I think the popular ones were Tyndale followed by Geneva followed by KJV. There were something like 6-8 other translations in there as well depending on which revisions you consider major enough to consider a new translation. Before the KJV, the “official” ones tended to be lower quality and/or less accessible to non-clergy

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                • With the exception of Douey-Rheims (sp?), all of the older English translations (and even most new ones) after Tyndale are essentially revisions (or revisions of revisions of revisions…) of Tyndale. The KJV retains at least 50% of his wording (most estimates are closer to 70%).

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                    • The first major non-Catholic translation outside the “Tyndale stream” was the NIV (1984!). Some before that were very thorough revisions (e.g. NASB) based on a much broader variety of manuscripts, but much of the phrasing still owed a lot to Tyndale.

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                    • Tyndale’s contribution can’t be overrated, that’s true. Makes me wonder if anyone on the Orthodox side of things utilized his work at all. I have to imagine they didn’t, since the Great Schism happened long before he was born, but still… works like that have a way of traveling.

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                    • I don’t know for sure, but I think that the Eastern churches were more likely to have their own translations already. Ancient translations in Syriac, Coptic, Gothic, Georgian, etc. are major sources in textual criticism. The violent Vulgate-obsession of the Roman Catholic Church didn’t extend to the East, but it’s possible there was a similar situation where some ancient translation was held to be practically better than the originals and stymied all other translations even after it became incomprehensible to the average person.

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                    • My understanding from a couple of Orthodox priests that I’ve heard is that they consider themselves the “keepers of the original” Aramaic and Greek and of course consider these to be superior to any translations. But see, this is where rabbit holes begin, when someone comes along to challenge these assertions. Makes me wish I had a better head for languages.

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                    • That makes sense since Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic remained spoken languages in the East far longer than in the West. I wonder if the ancient translations were abandoned at some point to get “back to the originals.” I think most thinking people would agree on the greater accuracy of the original languages since things always get lost in translation, but (as Luther, Tyndale, etc. argued) it keeps it out of the hands of the average person, giving the magisterium (or the Eastern equivalent) absolute interpretive control.

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                    • Good question, certainly worthy of inquiry. I don’t know that the Orthodoxy had the same level of issues about the texts and the average people that the West had, though, due to decentralization. It’s a completely different structure than how the Catholics went about things, and each of the different Orthodoxies still operate under consistent rules and understandings. They talk to each other far, far better than the West could ever claim.

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